OB/GYN - Group 5 | Medical Hub

51. The major cause of primary post-partum haemorrhage is:

A) Atony of the uterus B) Trauma C) Retained products D) Coagulopathy

52. A 50 years old man presents with progressive right scrotal swelling of three month duration, dull pain. Right testicle enlarged, hard, with small hydrocoele that does not transilluminate. Plan:

A) Book the patient for transinguinal testicular biopsy B) Orchidectomy C) Ultrasound D) Observation

53. Indication for cesarean section include all of the following EXCEPT:

A) Ruptured membranes B) Cephalopelvic disproportion C) Placenta previa D) Fetal distress

54. A 35 year-old G1P0 at 8 weeks gestation with type I diabetes. Possible risks from diabetes in pregnancy EXCEPT:

A) Cesarean section B) Macrosomia C) Congenital anomalies D) Polyhydramnios

55. Which is the most appropriate management of a face presentation with no fetal distress and an adequate pelvis?

A) Allow spontaneous labor with vaginal delivery B) C-section C) Forceps delivery D) Vacuum extraction